Daily Current Affairs Quiz: September 14, 2023

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research- National
Environmental and Engineering Research Institute
1. CSIR-NEERI is a research institute that functions under the Ministry of Science & Technology.
2. It was established in Nagpur in 1958 with a focus on water supply, sewage disposal, communicable diseases

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: Option C.)

Ans. 1 Option C is correct Explanation
• CSIR-NEERI is a research institute that functions under the Ministry of Science & Technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was established in Nagpur in 1958 with a focus on water supply, sewage disposal, communicable diseases, and to some
extent industrial pollution and occupational diseases found common in post-independent India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• CSIR has 38 national laboratories working in various areas of science and technology. CSIR-NEERI is one of those laboratories.

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Budapest Convention
1. The Council of Europe’s (CoE) Cybercrime Convention, also known as the Budapest Convention came into force in 2004.
2. The convention is the sole legally binding international multilateral treaty on cybercrime.
3. It coordinates cybercrime investigations between nation-states and criminalizes certain cybercrime conduct.

How many of the statements given
above is/are incorrect?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: option D.)

Ans. 2 Option D is the correct Explanation
• The Council of Europe’s (CoE) Cybercrime Convention is also known as the Budapest Convention. It was open for signature in 2001 and came into force in 2004. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The convention is the sole legally binding international multilateral treaty on cybercrime. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It coordinates cybercrime investigations between nation-states and criminalizes certain cybercrime conduct. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It serves as a guideline for any country developing comprehensive national legislation against Cybercrime and as a framework for international cooperation between state parties to this treaty.
• The Budapest Convention is supplemented by a Protocol on Xenophobia and Racism committed through computer systems.
• Significance: Almost all stakeholders agree that the current form of cross-border data sharing for law enforcement through the Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT) is insufficient for the digital age. However, there is an ongoing debate
whether to revamp MLAT or form an entirely new system for cybercrimes in the form of this Convention.
• This Convention has eagerly called for Indian participation since its formation in 2001, but India has decided not to be a party to it.

Q3. Consider the following statements about the e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project
1. The project is a part of the National e-Governance Plan
2. the project has been under implementation since 2007 for Information and Communications Technology (ICT) development of the Indian Judiciary
3. The e-Courts project is being implemented in association with e- e-Committee Supreme Court of India and the Department of Justice.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Show solution

Solution: option C.)

Ans. 3 Option C is the correct Explanation
• The Government of India has launched the e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project in the country for the computerization of Districts and subordinate courts
• Objective: improving access to justice using technology.
• e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project
• As part of the National e-Governance Plan, the project has been under implementation since 2007 for Information and Communications Technology (ICT) development of the Indian Judiciary. Hence, statement 1 and 2 is correct.
• The e-Courts project is being implemented in association with the e-Committee Supreme Court of India and the Department of Justice. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. One only
B. Two only
C. All three
D. None of the Above

Show solution

Solution: option B.)

Ans:4 Option B is Correct Explanation
• Article 85(1) of the Constitution states that the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session
and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• The session of Lok Sabha is called for at least two times a year.
• The Constitution does not state that three sessions of the Parliament should be called in a year. Hence Statement 2 is Not Correct.
• There is no provision for the minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Hence Statement 3 is Correct.

Q5. Consider the following statements about Sickle-Cell Disease

1. It is a “lifelong illness” with a blood and bone marrow transplant being the only cure.
2. It was included in the list of disabilities under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show solution

Solution: option C.)

Ans. 5 Option C is the correct Explanation
• SCD as a “lifelong illness” with a blood and bone marrow transplant being the only cure, “which very few people, especially amongst the tribal population can undertake”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• When SCD was included in the list of disabilities under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, patients could only avail disability certificates with a one-year validity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The DEPwD eventually increased the validity of disability certificates for SCD patients to three years, requiring a minimum of 25% disability.

Q6 Consider the following statements with reference to the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM

1. CBAM is part of the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55% by 2030
2. It requires importers to declare the quantity of goods imported into the EU and their embedded Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions on an annual basis

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show solution

Solution: option D.)

Ans. 6 Option D is the correct Explanation
• CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, which is the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55% by 2030 compared to 1990 levels in line with the European Climate Law. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The CBAM is a policy tool aimed at reducing Carbon Emissions by ensuring that imported goods are subject to the same carbon costs as products produced within the EU. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The CBAM will be implemented by requiring importers to declare the quantity of goods imported into the EU and their embedded Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions on an annual basis.
• To offset these emissions, importers will need to surrender a corresponding number of CBAM certificates, the price of which will be based on the weekly average auction price of the EU Emission Trading System (ETS) allowances in €/tonne of CO2 emitted.

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding C295 Transport Aircraft:

1. It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
2. It was designed and built indigenously by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Show solution

Solution: option A.)

Ans:7 Option A is Correct Explanation
• The C295 is indeed a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
• The C295 is a twin- turboprop transport aircraft manufactured by Airbus Defence and Space. It is designed for a wide range of military and civil missions, including troop transport, cargo transportation, medical evacuation, and maritime patrol. It has a maximum payload capacity of 9.25 tons and can carry up to 71 personnel. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
• The C295 transport aircraft is manufactured by Airbus Defence and Space, a European aerospace company.
• HAL is a state-owned aerospace and defense company in India, but it is not involved in the design and production of the C295. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q8. Operation Polo which was seen in the news recently, is related to which of the following?

A. India 2019 Kargil war operation
B. India 2019s operation to recapture Siachen glacier
C. India 2019s operation to liberate Bangladesh
D. India 2019s operation to annex Hyderabad

Show solution

Solution: Option D.)

Ans:8 Option D is Correct Explanation
• The state of Hyderabad was under the Nizam which included the whole of current-day Telangana, the Marathwada region in Maharashtra, and several regions of Karnataka.
• The Nizam of Hyderabad hoped to retain his sovereignty and opposed the idea of merging with India after Independence Osman Ali Khan Asaf Jah VII, the last Nizam of the princely state of Hyderabad proclaimed Hyderabad as a sovereign state and this added to the tension and led to communal clashes.
• The Indian government did not want Hyderabad to remain free fearing that it would lead to the country’s balkanization.
• The then Home Minister Sardar Patel referred to the concept of an independent Hyderabad as “an ulcer in the heart of India which needed to be removed surgically.”
• Hence, India decided to annex Hyderabad and named the operation “Operation Polo”. On September 13, 1948, Indian forces attacked Hyderabad. In a five-day battle, the Indian Army took Hyderabad and fully integrated it into Indian territory by decisively defeating Nizam.

Q9. With reference to Flood Plain Zoning, consider the following statements:

1. It is an effective non-structural measure for flood management.
2. The objective of zoning is to regulate land use in the flood plains.
3. Zoning can remedy any existing flood management issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Show solution

Solution: Option C.)

Ans:9 Option C is the Correct Explanation
• Flood Plain Zoning has been recognized as an effective non-structural measure for flood management. Hence Statement 1 is correct
• The basic concept of floodplain zoning is to regulate land use in the floodplains to restrict the damage caused by floods. Hence Statement 2 is correct
• Zoning cannot remedy existing situations, although, it will help in minimising flood damage in new developments. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect

Q10. “Global Stocktake Process” sometimes mentioned in the news is associated with

which of the following?
A. Paris Agreement
B. Kigali Agreement
C. Brazilia declaration
D. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Ans:10 Option A is the Correct Explanation
• Article 14 of the Paris Agreement requires the Conference of the Parties serving as the meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA) to periodically take stock of the implementation of the Paris Agreement and to assess collective
progress towards achieving the purpose of the Agreement and its long-term goals.
• This process is called the global stocktake. The global stocktake shall be conducted in a comprehensive and facilitative manner, considering mitigation, adaptation, and the means of implementation and support, and in the light of equity and the best available science.
• The CMA will undertake the first global stocktake in 2023 and every five years thereafter, unless otherwise decided by the CMA.
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